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NEW QUESTION: 1
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
* DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
* DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
* A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.



All interfaces are active. DSW2 has not become the active device for the VLAN 103 HSRP group. As related to the VLAN 103 HSRP group, what can be done to make the group function properly?
A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150.
C. On DSW2, increase the priority value to a value greater 200 and less than 250.
D. On DSW2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than
50.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The reason DSW2 has not become the active switch for Vlan103 is because the priority value of DSW1 is higher than that of DSW2. In order to make DSW2 become the active switch, we need to increase DSW2's priority (to higher than 200) or decrease DSW1's priority (to lower than 190) -> B and C are correct.
But there is another requirement from this question that "A failure on gig1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 on backup device has also failed". This requirement makes answer B incorrect. For example, we choose to decrease the priority value on DSW1 to 160 (according to answer B) then DSW2 will become active switch (that is good). When Gi1/0/1 on DSW2 goes down, the priority of DSW2 will be 190 - 50 = 140 < 160 -> DSW1 will become new active switch (it is good, too). But when Gi1/0/1 on DSW1 also goes down, the priority of DSW1 will be 160
- 10 = 150 and it is still greater than 140 of DSW2 -> DSW2 cannot retake the active role as the requirement of this question.

NEW QUESTION: 2
A security analyst is reviewing a report from the networking department that describes an increase in network utilization, which is causing network performance issues on some systems.
A top talkers report over a five-minute sample is included.

Given the above output of the sample, which of the following should the security analyst accomplish FIRST to help track down the performance issues?
A. Put ACLs in place to restrict traffic destined for random or non-default application ports.
B. Perform reverse lookups on each of the IP addresses listed to help determine if the traffic is necessary.
C. Recommend that networking block the unneeded protocols such as Quicktime to clear up some of the congestion.
D. Quarantine the top talker on the network and begin to investigate any potential threats caused by the excessive traffic.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC next-hop.
B. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from the next-hop.
C. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
D. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 4
A 16-year-old student has a long history of bronchial asthma and has experienced several severe asthmatic attacks during the school year. The school nurse is required to administer
0.2 mL of 1/1000 solution of epinephrine SC during an asthma attack. How does the school nurse evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention?
A. Decreased inspiratory difficulty
B. Increased expectorate of secretions
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Increased respiratory rate
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) A side effect of epinephrine is fatal ventricular fibrillation owing to its effects on cardiac stimulation. (B) Medications used to treat asthma are designed to decrease bronchospasm, not to increase expectorate of secretions. (C) Epinephrine decreased inspiratory difficulty
by stimulating -, 1, and 2-receptors causing sympathomimetic stimulation (e.g.,
bronchodilation). (D) The person with asthma fights to inspire sufficient air thus increasing respiratory rate.